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In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T0.049 \text{ T}, a magnetic needle performs 2020 complete oscillations in 55 seconds as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is 9.8×106 kg m29.8 \times 10^{-6} \text{ kg m}^2. If the magnitude of magnetic moment of the needle is x×105 Am2x \times 10^{-5} \text{ Am}^2, then the value of 'xx' is:

A

128π2128\pi^2

B

50π250\pi^2

C

1280π21280\pi^2

D

5π25\pi^2

Step-by-Step Solution

  1. Calculate Time Period (TT): The needle performs 20 oscillations in 5 seconds. T=Total TimeNumber of Oscillations=520=14 s=0.25 sT = \frac{\text{Total Time}}{\text{Number of Oscillations}} = \frac{5}{20} = \frac{1}{4} \text{ s} = 0.25 \text{ s}
  2. Formula: The time period of oscillation for a magnetic needle in a magnetic field BB is given by: T=2πImBT = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{mB}} Where:
  • II is the moment of inertia.
  • mm is the magnetic moment.
  • BB is the magnetic field strength.
  1. Rearrange for Magnetic Moment (mm): Squaring both sides: T2=4π2ImBT^2 = 4\pi^2 \frac{I}{mB} m=4π2IT2Bm = \frac{4\pi^2 I}{T^2 B}
  2. Substitute Values:
  • I=9.8×106 kg m2I = 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \text{ kg m}^2
  • B=0.049 T=49×103 TB = 0.049 \text{ T} = 49 \times 10^{-3} \text{ T}
  • T=1/4 s    T2=1/16 s2T = 1/4 \text{ s} \implies T^2 = 1/16 \text{ s}^2

m=4π2×(9.8×106)(1/16)×(49×103)m = \frac{4\pi^2 \times (9.8 \times 10^{-6})}{(1/16) \times (49 \times 10^{-3})} m=4π2×9.8×106×1649×103m = \frac{4\pi^2 \times 9.8 \times 10^{-6} \times 16}{49 \times 10^{-3}}

Notice that 9.89.8 is 2×4.92 \times 4.9, and 4949 is 10×4.910 \times 4.9. Let's simplify: m=64π2×9.8×10649×103m = \frac{64\pi^2 \times 9.8 \times 10^{-6}}{49 \times 10^{-3}} 9.849=15=0.2\frac{9.8}{49} = \frac{1}{5} = 0.2 m=64π2×0.2×103m = 64\pi^2 \times 0.2 \times 10^{-3} m=12.8π2×103m = 12.8\pi^2 \times 10^{-3} m=1280π2×105 Am2m = 1280\pi^2 \times 10^{-5} \text{ Am}^2 5. Find xx: The problem states m=x×105 Am2m = x \times 10^{-5} \text{ Am}^2. Comparing values: x=1280π2x = 1280\pi^2.

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